1-Income inequality in most European countries is smaller than it is in the US given all of the approaches and strategies available to the US
(and to Europe ) for improving income distribution,
why do you think this is so.
2-American Capitalism is not pure Capitalism; it has become a mixed economy, largely because of defects or failure in the market system that Adam Smith did not foresee. What are these defects or failure that Smith didn’t foresee? Discuss
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